Finishing Strong and Looking Ahead
Year-End Compliance Checklist and Q1 2025 Filing Deadlines for Investment Advisers
Finishing Strong and Looking Ahead
Year-End Compliance Checklist and Q1 2025 Filing Deadlines for Investment Advisers
As the end of 2024 approaches, it is crucial that all investment advisers—including registered investment advisers (RIAs) and exempt reporting advisers (ERAs)—complete end of the year regulatory and compliance tasks and prepare for various reporting deadlines looming in early 2025. This is an opportune time to review, test, and update compliance programs, conduct annual reviews and employee trainings, and address any outstanding regulatory issues. To help you close out 2024 strong and prepare for 2025, we have provided the below checklist, which identifies notable year-end compliance tasks, and the below chart, which summarizes key regulatory filing deadlines in the first quarter of 2025.
Deadline[10] | Filing | Description of investments advisers subject to the requirement |
Within 72 hours after occurrence of certain events | Current Reports in Section 5 of Form PF for Large Hedge Fund Advisers | Any RIA that files Form PF and that is a “Large Hedge Fund Adviser”[11] must file a “current” report on Section 5 of Form PF within 72 hours after the occurrence of certain events[12] with respect to any “qualifying hedge fund”[13] |
Jan. 15, 2025 | Form PF updates for Large Liquidity Fund Advisers | Any RIA that files Form PF and that is a “Large Liquidity Fund Adviser”[14] must file a Form PF update within 15 days of the end of its fiscal year that updates all items in the Form PF |
Feb. 14, 2025 | Form 13H | Any person who exercises investment discretion over accounts that effect transactions in National Market System (NMS) securities that equal or exceed two million shares or $20 million during any calendar day, or 20 million shares or $200 million during any calendar month (a “Large Trader”) must file a Form 13H within 45 days after the end of the calendar year |
Form 13F | Any institutional investment manager that exercises investment discretion with respect to accounts holding Section 13(f) securities having an aggregate fair market value on the last trading day of any month of any calendar year of at least $100 million must file a Form 13F within 45 days after the end of the calendar year | |
Schedule 13G | An investment adviser that beneficially owns more than 5% of a public company’s equity securities and can rely on the “qualified institutional investor” exemption must file Schedule 13G within 45 days after the end of the quarter in which the investment adviser breached the 5% beneficial ownership threshold | |
Form PR | Any registered Commodity Trading Adviser (CTA) subject to a reporting requirement under CFTC Regulation 4.27 must file Form PR within 45 days of the calendar year end | |
Mar. 1, 2025 | Section 6 of Form PF for Private Equity Fund Advisers | Any RIA that files Form PF and advises a “private equity fund”[15] must file a quarterly report on Section 6 of Form PF within 60 days of the end of the calendar quarter if a private equity fund advised by the RIA experienced either of the following events in that quarter: (1) an adviser-led secondary transaction, or (2) a general partner removal or an investor election to terminate the fund or its investment period |
Form PQR | Any registered Commodity Pool Operator (CPO) subject to a reporting requirement under CFTC Regulation 4.27 must file a Form PQR within 60 days of calendar end | |
Form PF Updates for Large Hedge Fund Advisers | Any RIA that files Form PF and is a Large Hedge Fund Adviser must file a quarterly update within 60 days after the end of the fourth fiscal quarter that updates all items in Form PF | |
Reaffirm CPO exemption or exclusion and CTA exemptions under CFTC Rules | Any investment adviser that relies on CFTC Regulation 4.14(a)(8) or funds that rely on CFTC Regulation 4.5, 4.13(a)(1), 4.13(a)(2), 4.13(a)(3), or 4.13(a)(5) must file an affirmation of the applicable notice of exemption or exclusion within 60 days of the calendar year end[16] | |
Mar. 31, 2025 | Form ADV Part 1 | RIAs and ERAs must file an amended Form ADV Part 1 within 90 days after the end of the adviser’s fiscal year |
Form ADV Part 2A (“brochure”) filing | An RIA must file an amended brochure within 90 days after the end of the adviser’s fiscal year | |
CPO Annual Report | A CPO must distribute an Annual Report, certified by an independent public accountant, to pool participants within 90 days of the pool’s fiscal year-end and file the report with the NFA, unless an exception applies | |
Ongoing Reporting Obligations | Form ADV “other-than-annual” amendments | An RIA and an ERA must promptly file amendments to Form ADV Part 1A to address certain changes (e.g., certain changes to control persons and direct and indirect owners and disciplinary issues) and, for RIAs, Form ADV Part 2A whenever any information in such filing becomes materially inaccurate |
Form CRS | Any RIA that provides advisory services to “retail investors” must: (1) file an amended Form CRS within 30 days whenever any information in it becomes materially inaccurate, and (2) communicate any changes in the updated Form CRS to existing retail investors within 60 days after the updates are required to be made | |
Form D Amendments | The general partner of a private fund that sells its securities in reliance on an exemption provided in Regulation D or Section 4(a)(5) of the Securities Act of 1933 must file an amendment to Form D on or before the first anniversary of the last filed Form D or amendment, if the offering is continuing | |
Deliver updated privacy notices | Any RIA that has an advisory relationship with an individual that uses the adviser’s services primarily for personal, family, or household purposes must provide an updated privacy notice at least once in any period of 12 consecutive months for the duration of the client relationship | |
QPAM Reporting | Any investment adviser that provides services to certain ERISA clients and relies on the Department of Labor’s (DOL) Qualified Professional Asset Manager (QPAM) exemption must provide a one-time notice to the DOL via email within 90 calendar days of relying on the exemption |
[1] The SEC adopted amendments to Form PF on February 8, 2024, marking the third set of amendments to the form in 12 months. See Form PF; Reporting Requirements for All Filers and Large Hedge Fund Advisers, SEC Rel. No. IA-6546 (Feb. 8, 2024). Any Form PF filing made on or after March 12, 2025 is required to be filed on the amended version of Form PF.
[2] Although ERAs are not subject to Rule 206(4)-7 under the Advisers Act, as a best practice, they should consider conducting an annual review and update of their compliance program.
[3] Rule 206(4)-7 does not explicitly require investment advisers to document their annual review in writing. Nevertheless, the SEC staff generally expects investment advisers to maintain some records as evidence that they conducted an annual review of their policies and procedures.
[4] See MoFo’s Client Alert on FinCEN’s AML/CFT rulemaking for investment advisers. The compliance date for the amended rule is January 1, 2026.
[5] See MoFo’s Client Alert on Regulation S-P Amendments. The compliance date for these amendments to Regulation S-P is December 3, 2025 or June 3, 2026, depending on the adviser’s size.
[6] See MoFo’s Client Alert regarding recent amendments to California’s Diversity Reporting law. The compliance date for the amended law is March 1, 2026.
[7] Although the CTA took effect on January 1, 2024, enforcement of the CTA and the BOI reporting rules have been temporarily suspended by the U.S. District Court for the Eastern District Court of Texas. See MoFo’s Client Alert discussing the Court’s preliminary injunction, MoFo’s Client Alert discussing the U.S. government’s appeal, and MoFo’s CTA Resource Center.
[8] See MoFo’s Client Alert on the SEC Division of Examination’s 2025 Priorities.
[9] See MoFo’s Client Alert on Top 5 SEC Enforcement Developments for September 2024.
[10] Assumes a December 31st fiscal year end for any filing requirements that are based on a fiscal year end.
[11] A “Large Hedge Fund Adviser” is an adviser that, collectively with its related persons, had at least $1.5 billion in hedge fund assets under management as of the last day of any month in the fiscal quarter immediately preceding the adviser’s most recently completed fiscal quarter.
[12] These events include: (1) certain extraordinary investment losses; (2) significant margin events; (3) counterparty default events; (4) material changes in prime broker relationships; (5) operations events (including certain investment, compliance, and valuation issues); (6) certain events associated with withdrawals; and (7) the inability of a fund to satisfy redemptions, or suspensions of redemptions, for more than five consecutive business days.
[13] A “qualifying hedge fund” is any hedge fund that has a net asset value (individually or in combination with any feeder funds, parallel funds, and/or dependent parallel managed accounts) of at least $500 million as of the last day of any month in the fiscal quarter immediately preceding the adviser’s most recently completed fiscal quarter.
[14] A “Large Liquidity Fund Adviser” is an adviser that advises one or more liquidity funds and had, collectively with any related persons, at least $1 billion in combined money market and liquidity fund assets under management, as of the last day of any month in the fiscal quarter immediately preceding the adviser’s most recently completed fiscal quarter.
[15] A “private equity fund” is any private fund that is not a hedge fund, liquidity fund, real estate fund, securitized asset fund, or venture capital fund and does not provide investors with redemption rights in the ordinary course.
[16] The CFTC recently amended CFTC Rule 4.7. See MoFo’s Client Alert for a summary of these amendments.s.